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AMC MCQ · Infectious Disease

AMC Infectious Disease MCQ Practice — 150+ Questions for IMGs

HIV, TB, sepsis, STIs and tropical disease — AMC MCQ ID MCQs aligned with Australian Therapeutic Guidelines.

180 questions in the full bank · 5 free samples below · Spaced repetition + AI explanations on the free tier.

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Why Infectious Disease matters in AMC MCQ

Infectious disease contributes 6–9 questions to AMC MCQ, with HIV, tuberculosis, sepsis, sexually transmitted infections, traveller’s fever, hepatitis B/C, antibiotic stewardship, and Australian-specific tropical conditions (melioidosis, Murray Valley encephalitis) all in scope. Australian examiners are strict on the empirical antibiotic recommendations from Therapeutic Guidelines: Antibiotic, the most-cited reference on the AMC blueprint.

Mostly Medicine’s ID bank is mapped to ASID and ASHM consensus guidelines, the Australian Immunisation Handbook, and Therapeutic Guidelines: Antibiotic. You’ll practise items on HIV testing windows and PrEP/PEP eligibility, the four-drug TB regimen and DOT in remote Aboriginal communities, the empirical antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia (benzylpenicillin + doxycycline or moxifloxacin), the syphilis treatment ladder, and contact tracing under public health legislation.

AMC ID vignettes tend to weave travel history, occupational exposure, and pregnancy status into the stem, then ask for the most appropriate empirical antibiotic, vaccine or notification step. Practising 125+ Australian-aligned infectious disease MCQs builds the breadth you need. Sign up free to unlock the full bank.

5 free Infectious Disease sample MCQs

Below are five sample questions taken straight from the Mostly Medicine infectious disease bank. The correct answer is highlighted, with the worked explanation tucked inside a collapsed panel so you can self-test first.

Question 1Sepsis · medium

A 70-year-old woman presents confused, with HR 118, RR 24, BP 88/55, temp 38.9°C, and WCC 18.5. Urine is cloudy. What is the FIRST hour bundle for sepsis?

  1. A.Blood cultures, then broad-spectrum antibiotics within 3 hours
  2. B.CT chest/abdomen to find source before antibiotics
  3. C.Blood cultures, IV antibiotics, 30mL/kg IV crystalloid, lactateCorrect
  4. D.Urine cultures and targeted antibiotics only
  5. E.ICU referral before starting antibiotics
Show explanation

Surviving Sepsis Campaign 1-hour bundle: measure lactate, blood cultures before antibiotics, broad-spectrum IV antibiotics, 30mL/kg IV crystalloid if hypotensive/lactate ≥4. Antibiotics within 1 hour — do not delay for CT or cultures.

Question 2HIV · medium

A 35-year-old man is newly diagnosed with HIV (CD4 450, viral load 25,000). He is asymptomatic. According to current guidelines, when should antiretroviral therapy be started?

  1. A.When CD4 drops below 350
  2. B.When CD4 drops below 200
  3. C.Immediately — regardless of CD4 countCorrect
  4. D.Only when symptomatic (AIDS-defining illness)
  5. E.When viral load exceeds 100,000
Show explanation

Current international guidelines (DHHS, WHO, ASHM): ART should be started immediately in ALL HIV-positive patients regardless of CD4 count or symptoms. Early treatment reduces transmission, immune decline, and non-AIDS complications.

Question 3HIV · medium

A 35-year-old man is newly diagnosed with HIV. CD4 count is 280 cells/µL. HIV viral load 45,000 copies/mL. He has no AIDS-defining illness. What is the most appropriate management?

  1. A.Start ART only if CD4 <200
  2. B.Start ART immediately regardless of CD4 count + PCP prophylaxisCorrect
  3. C.Observe and repeat CD4 in 3 months before starting ART
  4. D.Start ART only if viral load >100,000
  5. E.PCP prophylaxis alone until CD4 <200
Show explanation

Current HIV guidelines (DHHS, EACS): ART (antiretroviral therapy) recommended for ALL HIV-positive individuals regardless of CD4 count — reduces transmission, AIDS progression, and non-AIDS events. START trial confirmed benefit even at CD4 >500. CD4 280 → PCP prophylaxis indicated (CD4 <200: co-trimoxazole). Preferred first-line ART: integrase inhibitor-based (bictegravir/TAF/FTC or dolutegravir).

Question 4HIV · medium

A patient on HIV treatment (dolutegravir + TDF/FTC) presents with fever, dry cough, and dyspnoea. CD4 count is 45 cells/µL. CXR shows bilateral diffuse infiltrates. LDH is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis and treatment?

  1. A.Community-acquired pneumonia — amoxicillin
  2. B.PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia) — co-trimoxazole + prednisolone if pO2 <70Correct
  3. C.TB — RHEZ therapy
  4. D.CMV pneumonitis — ganciclovir
  5. E.Kaposi's sarcoma — chemotherapy
Show explanation

PCP: CD4 <200 (most common at CD4 <50), insidious onset dyspnoea, dry cough, bilateral perihilar infiltrates, ↑LDH. Diagnosis: bronchoalveolar lavage (methenamine silver stain). Treatment: high-dose IV/oral co-trimoxazole (TMP-SMX) for 21 days. Add prednisolone 40 mg BD if PaO2 <70 mmHg (reduces mortality). Prophylaxis: co-trimoxazole 1 DS tablet daily when CD4 <200.

Question 5STI · medium

A 22-year-old man presents with a painless penile ulcer with indurated edges and enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. TPHA and VDRL are both reactive. What is the diagnosis, stage, and treatment?

  1. A.Genital herpes — aciclovir
  2. B.Primary syphilis (Treponema pallidum) — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM onceCorrect
  3. C.Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi) — azithromycin
  4. D.Lymphogranuloma venereum — doxycycline 21 days
  5. E.Squamous cell carcinoma — biopsy
Show explanation

Primary syphilis: painless indurated ulcer (chancre) + non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. TPHA (specific treponemal test) + VDRL (non-specific, used for monitoring titre post-treatment). Treatment: benzathine penicillin 2.4 MU IM single dose. Doxycycline if penicillin allergy. Partner notification + testing essential. Secondary syphilis: rash on palms/soles, condylomata lata, alopecia. Latent: positive serology, no symptoms.

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Infectious Disease FAQ

What HIV testing windows are tested?

Fourth-generation antigen/antibody combo tests are reliable from 4 weeks post-exposure. PEP must commence within 72 hours of exposure (ideally <24 h) and continues for 28 days. PrEP is PBS-listed for at-risk individuals.

How is community-acquired pneumonia treated?

Per Therapeutic Guidelines: low severity → amoxicillin 1 g 8-hourly + doxycycline; moderate severity → IV benzylpenicillin + doxycycline or oral moxifloxacin; severe (ICU) → IV ceftriaxone + azithromycin or moxifloxacin.

What STI screening should I know?

Annual HIV, syphilis, gonorrhoea, chlamydia testing in MSM and other at-risk groups; genital examination plus first-pass urine NAAT for chlamydia/gonorrhoea; and contact tracing through PartnerLetter or public health units for notifiable infections.

Are tropical diseases tested?

Yes. Know malaria diagnosis (thick + thin films × 3, antigen test) and treatment by species, dengue with warning signs, melioidosis (high mortality, requires IV ceftazidime/meropenem then prolonged eradication), and rickettsial illnesses such as Queensland tick typhus.

How many ID MCQs are free?

Five sample infectious disease MCQs with explanations on this page. The full 125+ bank unlocks with a free Mostly Medicine account.